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The original was posted on /r/askhistorians by /u/luujs on 2023-10-07 12:53:49.

For a man of relatively humble origins to depose and execute a king and then become one in all but name must have been a shock to many of the European monarchs, who at this time almost all believed in their divine right to rule, which had itself got Charles I executed. Was there a refusal to accept the Cromwellian administration as legitimate? Were invasions planned to restore Charles II? Was there an embargo? I know very little about the subject and I’m interested to know whether the reaction was similar to that of Napoleon’s time. Although the key difference was Napoleon’s conquests